One of the many amazing prophecies of Jesus Christ from the Old Testament is that of verse 1 from Psalm 22:
>"O God my God, look upon me: why hast thou forsaken me?"
Many people have said, "Jesus said God has forsaken him on the cross, how could he be the Messiah?"
Jesus was invoking Psalm 22 on the cross. The Psalm was wrote around 1,000 years before Christ was born.
This is significant because a few verses later in the same Psalm it says this:
>"They have pierced my hands and feet."
Some renderings have it;
>"they have torn holes in my hands and my feet"
Strange. It would appear that Jesus Christ invoked a Psalm wrote 1,000 years before He was born that seemed to tell of His very unique death, crucifixion; which did not even exist at the time Psalm 22 was wrote.
Psalm 22 goes on to say:
>"They parted my garments amongst them; and upon my vesture they cast lots."
This is another strange coincidence. It is known that the Roman soldiers gambled, or "cast lots" on Christ's garments as He was being crucified. If Christ was utterly out of His depths and defeated; why does this Psalm--that was invoked as He was in unimaginable pain--foretell of exact circumstances of the very death He was experiencing? Circumstances that no one could have known?
Not only this, Psalm 22 ends by foretelling the great rise of Christendom, which was achieved based on the very death that Christ Himself was experiencing, that the Psalm undeniably addresses:
>"All the ends of the earth shall remember, and shall be converted to the Lord: And all the kindreds of the Gentiles shall adore in his sight."
Remember, at the time of Christ, only one tribe was expecting a Messiah. This Psalm called forth by Christ on the cross predicts His death to an exactitude, and it just happens to predict the unprecedented worldwide conversion based on this death.
How do atheists explain this away?
