Why do Americans borrow their language from other country?

why do Americans borrow their language from other country?

Other urls found in this thread:

archive.org/stream/passingofgreatra00granuoft/passingofgreatra00granuoft_djvu.txt
twitter.com/NSFWRedditImage

why do you?

because they were once owned by us then we left

America is an Anglo country. Even with our redskin genes we still look more Anglo-Norman than England does today. Not sure how that happened

STFU Gooks, YOu're our property

...

Only London and for obvious reasons

It's the weirdest thing...we were just sitting around for hundreds of years in silence, then Abraham Lincoln had the idea to pop over to England, borrow a language, and then we could talk. Do miracles never cease?

China should nuke you both degenerates

UK is a lot more white than the US. Sorry pal.

Communists should starve again.

I'm talking about the average white.

how will bongs ever recover?

Not just Americans though. Almost all ex British colonies use English as lingua franca and official language of the nation, even non anglo nations like South Africa, India,Papua New Guinea,etc... It's a baggage of Britishers leaving their artificial borders as it is after they left which lead to many of these nations adapt a foreign language to avoid succumbing to infighting an civil war in the name of language (Case in point:Sri Lanka tried to make Sinhalese, language spoken by the majority official language only to find tamilbbos plunging the country into civil war in the name of language)

Here's why
>The United States of America must be regarded racially as a European colony, and owing to current ignorance of the physical bases of race, one often hears the statement made that native Americans of Colonial ancestry are of mixed ethnic origin. This is not true. At the time of the Revolutionary War the settlers in the thirteen Colonies were not only purely Nordic, but also purely Teutonic, a very large majority being Anglo-Saxon in the most limited meaning of that term. The New England settlers in particular came from those counties of England where the blood was almost purely Saxon, Anglian, and Dane.
>New England, during Colonial times and long afterward, was far more Teutonic than old
England; that is, it contained a smaller percentage of small, Pre-Nordic brunets. Any one familiar with the native New Englander knows the clean cut face, the high stature and the prevalence of gray and blue eyes and light brown hair, and recognizes that the brunet element is less noticeable there than in the South.
>The remaining Colonial elements, the Holland Dutch, the Palatine Germans, who came over in small numbers to New York and Pennsylvania, were also purely Teutonic, while the French Huguenots who escaped to America were drawn much more largely from the Nordic than from the Alpine or Mediterranean elements of France. The Scotch-Irish, who were numerous on the frontier of the middle Colonies were, of course, of pure Scotch and English blood, although they had resided in Ireland two or three generations. They were quite free from admixture with the earlier Irish from whom they were cut off socially by bitter religious antagonism, and they are not to be considered as "Irish" in any sense.
>The Nordic blood was kept pure in the Colonies, because at that time among Protestant peoples there was a strong race feeling, as a result of which half-breeds between the white man and any native type were regarded as natives and not as white men.

Because we recognize a damn fine tool when we see one.

Source? I like it. It sure conforms to my observations. My ancestors were mostly Paltine Germans and some Anglo Saxons. Hudson Valley. Interesting.

Only on pol. Jap flag calling Korea flag “gook”. I bet you are both American.

>By 1937, the book is said to have sold 17,000 copies in the U.S. The book received positive reviews in the 1920s, but Grant's popularity declined in the 1930s. Among those who embraced the book and its message was Adolf Hitler, who wrote to Grant to personally thank him for writing it, referring to the book as "my Bible."
archive.org/stream/passingofgreatra00granuoft/passingofgreatra00granuoft_djvu.txt

I think the South was more Norman than the North back then but not positive

And I bet your not.

Because British people made up most of the original Americans. Same reason why mexicans speak Spanish.

BECAUSE THEY ARE THIEVISH NIGGERS

...

...

Same reason why Mexicans spic Spanish.

I would be pissed too

Lowland Scotland is Anglo.

>why do Americans borrow their language from *other country?
*another

I may be the only one here who is actually where they say they are. LOL

Thanks. Well aware of eugenics but never heard of this book. Checked the Wki on it. Interesting. “He was concerned that a variety of ethnic groups were forming criminal elements....”. LOL. Mafia. Also concerned about Bolsheviks (Jews). A bit ahead of his time, perhaps.

Scotland was always shown to be low on the cephalic index when they used to keep track of such things. One of the lowest in europe. About the same as scandinavians. So they definitely have the anglo mixture to a high degree. At least with regard to being long headed.