The nazis fought for the white ra-

The nazis fought for the white ra-

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Other urls found in this thread:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish–Soviet_War:
archive.is/WV3pg
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish–Soviet_War).
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Józef_Piłsudski#Foreign_policy).
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prometheism
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intermarium).
archive.is/6q4Ah)?
rand.org/content/dam/rand/pubs/reports/2005/R2772.pdf)?
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_Operation_of_the_NKVD),
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Danzig_law
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_City_of_Danzig_parliamentary_election,_1935
twitter.com/NSFWRedditImage

Leben ist kampf

You don't know that Western "Poland" was Germany?

no. He does not. School system did its job well.

how does it work? this wuz roman so rome has rights to the lands?

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This is a woefully attempt at a meme. Please delete and begin again.

>muh rights

The bigger dog fucks , and europe got assraped by amerimuts.
Saving white race from evil nazis one bomb at a time.

And we accept the blacks to spend our tax money

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It's funny, this text could apply to the American side as well.

well, maybe if the kikes didn't shame every white person as a "nazi" who wants to preserve his race people wouldn't have that perception of actual historical nazis. so why don't you go tell this to your kike masters? think they're gonna give you a cookie for your post, OP?

it was not germany it was annexed by prussia ~100 -150 years earlier. No country called Germany existed during that time

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Go back to Poland

Yeah Warsaw was Germany. Fucking retard. Even the parts Prussia annexed from Poland were majority Polish.

Nope, the lands were originally Polish. Holy Roman Empire stole the lands from us.
Evidence: look up the maps (Europe 10-11 century)

fucking soyboy

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Regarding why Germany invaded Poland.

(1/3)
One explanation I have heard is that the Soviet Union officially and in action had as one of its major goals to spread communism to the whole world, including through war. A focus was turning western Europe communist, and according to some sources, it would be useful for the Soviet Union to provide "physical support" to the revolutions in western Europe if it possessed Poland.

From the Wikipedia article en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish–Soviet_War:

"As early as late 1919 the leader of Russia's new Bolshevik government, Vladimir Lenin, inspired by the Red Army's civil-war victories over White Russian anti-communist forces and their Western allies, began to see the future of the revolution with greater optimism. The Bolsheviks proclaimed the need for the dictatorship of the proletariat, and agitated for a worldwide Communist community. They had an avowed intent to link the revolution in Russia with an expected revolution in Germany and to assist other Communist movements in Western Europe; Poland was the geographical bridge that the Red Army would have to cross to provide direct physical support in the West.[17][dead link][22][23][24]" archive.is/WV3pg

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The Soviet Union had in the 1920s already invaded and/or conquered several countries, including having a war with Poland as well as conquering Ukraine which had a communist revolution (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish–Soviet_War). On this basis, an argument could be made that it was only a matter of time before Germany would have been invaded, whether Germany had been democratic or fascist. Germany had in the period 1918-1923 had several socialist and communist revolutions and uprisings, which could be viewed as internal communist attacks and threats, with the Soviet Union being a very dangerous external threat. Germany had in the 1930s several diplomatic attempts to try to create a mutual defense alliance with Poland against the Soviet Union, but they ended up failing (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Józef_Piłsudski#Foreign_policy). The reasons for this are debated, though one view is that Germany wanted territory it viewed as belonging to it back and wanted Poland to "move east" in regards to territory; while Poland wanted to keep its territory, maybe expand a bit, and preferred being the "big brother" in its own alliance of central-east-European countries against the Soviet Union and also Germany and other powers (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prometheism and en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intermarium). And in general there was very little trust between Germany and Poland, especially from the Polish side, and there were a lot of bitterness between the parties due to territory, expulsion of populations, treatment of minorities of the other party, and many disputes (an example was the trade war between Germany and Poland in the 1920s and 1930s).

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(3/3)
All in all, an argument could be made that Germany at the end of the 1930s saw no other way than to invade Poland before Poland was invaded by the Soviet Union, since directly sharing a border with the Soviet Union was considered unviable and a mutual defense alliance had not been achieved.

Only an idiot would have thought that to begin with. The Nazis didn't care about the "white race" they cared about the German race, and the subsequent expansion of it at the expense of other "white" races.

Is that why they literally split Poland with the USSR?

It was a simple war of expansion for land that was lost after WW1 and a little extra. Germany wasn't afraid of being invaded, they wanted to move their border east eventually into Russia and Poland was the first step. It's been a German goal since WW1.

>filled with German nationals
>German presence in the area unbroken since 1204
Calling it Polish because slavic invaders that don't even go by that name were there before them is specious at best.

Oppeln and those areas have always been majority Polish. The fact that the HRE sent some settlers to it's border regions doesn't change that, Poles were there before that.

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>slavs
>themselves not invaders and displaces of Germanic tribes
Again if the 800 years ago it was Polish is your measuring stick for rightful clay then within that same 800 year stick lenth you're using it's rightfully Gothic since the Slavs showed up around 400AD and they really had no right to be there around 1000AD 600 years after it was mostly slavic.
Other countries with no claim to their lands since they weren't there 800 years ago: The United States, Brasil, Australia, Singapore, etc
There's a point where "we were there first" is a ludicrous argument to make. The Germans have no right to what was west and east Prussia because there are no Germans there since 80 years ago, let alone 800.

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>It was a simple war of expansion for land that was lost after WW1 and a little extra
>Germany wasn't afraid of being invaded,
Why would they then seek an alliance with Poland? Why did they invade the Soviet Union despite already being at war with the UK, and the UK getting lots of supplies and material from the USA? Why were there lots of airfields and the like on the Soviet side of the border in Poland (see also archive.is/6q4Ah)? Why was anti-communism a major part of the Nazis' ideology and effort? Why did they fight communists in the streets? Put them into concentration camps? Why did they seek volunteers and get them from many different countries in Europe? Why did they have hundreds of thousands of Russians/Ex-Soviets fighting for them against the Soviet Union (though admittedly handled very poorly by Germany, see for instance rand.org/content/dam/rand/pubs/reports/2005/R2772.pdf)?

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Buying then time to rearm. They did it with Russia.

The UK wasn't an immediate threat. They wanted to the resources from Russia.

This is basic stuff. I'm not saying they weren't anti-communists, but they clearly had no qualms biding their time with them.

M8 the Goths literally moved right past that region. The Poles settled down and founded cities like Opole. It's not the same thing.

It's 100 percent the same thing. Your argument is that lands populated by Germans between the world wars were rightfully Polish because they were Polish hundreds upon hundred of years ago.
That argument holds no water whatsoever. As Germany holds no national claim to those areas that are Polish speaking now, Poland held no claim to those areas that were German speaking then. It's that fucking simple.

But I don't see how you could argue that they did not fear an invasion or even a Soviet conquest of Europe, like you claim in . And if the Soviet Union had conquered Poland, and multiple other countries, and begun utilizing and benefitting from their gains with time, what chance would Germany then stand? With an enlarged Soviet Union on one side and a war with UK and possibly others on the other? And given mass murders and genocides like Holodomor, the Red Terror, the Great Purge (including Katyn and en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_Operation_of_the_NKVD), and their own experiences with the communists in their very own country (!), would they not have been 100% to fear an invasion and conquest? And as I argued in , the Soviet Union very much wanted to conquer Europe, including through military conquest.

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... except western Poland was german land and they were slaughtering the german minority there.

You stupid fucking high school kid

*100% correct to fear

I have not investigated that part, but Danzig/Gdansk at the very least seemed to be very German. See for instance
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Danzig_law and en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_City_of_Danzig_parliamentary_election,_1935 (though regarding the election article, the (((Wikipedia))) article claims widespread election fraud and murders).