How smart is Sup Forums?

How smart is Sup Forums?

Other urls found in this thread:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox
youtube.com/watch?v=Sz3VwRLsfX0
twitter.com/NSFWRedditGif

50

1/3
/thread

Retarded motherfucker

HAHAHAHHAHAHHHAA laugh at this stupid cunt, lads

HAHAHAHHAHA

1:1
50%
One in two

Trick question. Those aren't regular coins.

Bayes. 1/3

There are two correct answers. Looking at the entire system the statistics say 33%, eliminating the known variables then the answer is 50%

25

50/50 + 100/50 = 150/50 or 3/1

So the odds are 66.6% (repeating, of course)

Retards

3.14159

Mmmmm, pie. Warm apple pie.

You are a retarded brainlet. it's 50%

>3/1 = 66.6

good job retard

Nope, it just depends on what is asked

If you ask "what are the chance that the two coins land heads" then it's 0.5*0.5

But if it's only "what are the chance that one of the coin land heads" then it's just 0.5

Have a masters in applied stats. Can confirm retards

>lern2commoncoremathbro

25% both coins land heads, 50% chance if the first coin does land heads.

no.

it's 1/3.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox

>keeps samefagging
>can’t actually answer
Fuck off retard.

This

33.3percent chance

>implying there’s only 2 genders.

Same fag. I'll just leave this here for the math illiterate fags.

Are they flipped at the same time?

Read the fucking problem dumbass.

Hint: "given that at least one of the coins is heads"

Given that at least one of them lands heads you have:
Heads Tails
Heads Heads
Tails Heads

Note that Tails Tails doesn't go into the group, because it states "Given that at least one landed heads".
It would be 1/2 if it said "given that the first one landed heads." Or "Given that the second one landed heads".
But it is asking specifically: Out of the group of possibilities that have AT LEAST ONE COIN LANDING HEADS, how many are HEADS-HEADS?
The answer is 1/3

I don't watch Rick and Morty, so I can't work it out :(

OP asks neither of these questions, you dumb fucking cunt.

Learn to read before attempting conditional probability.

Answer = 1/3

Question should be articulated better.
Should be written In math.

Nigga, neither of those questions are in the OP.
Look at

>en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox
This got me fucked up. How can the ambiguity of the question change the fact that AT LEAST one of the two children is female therefore leaving a 50/50 for the other child, because it could also mean they are BOTH female so that adds a third option? FUck

people probably mistaken this for 50 because they think that let's say coin number 1 will always be heads. so the other one, coin number 2, can only be heads or tails. Now in this case it would be 50% chance because it would mean that you set one coin as heads and throw the other one. But the questions says at least one is always heads. That means that either coin number 1 or coin number 2 can be heads, or both. But not both tails. This gives combinations heads and heads, heads and tails, tails and heads making it a 1/3 chance to land heads and heads. You're welcome.

Don't be a retard. The reason people argue 1/3rd there is because there isn't an equal likelyhood that a fertalized egg becomes either a boy or a girl.

On the other hand, assuming the coin isn't weighted to one side and is reasonably even, It's actually a 1/2 chance.

the ansnwer is 33$.

don't be a dumb.

Glad I graduate from grad school and have a cush job and not a dumbfuck who doesn't even understand basic stats.

25%?

you are a stupid shitter

Thank you ya fucko

>still slinging insults instead of answers.
Cool story bro.

ITT cunts who read the wiki already make fun of newfags who are being played by an ambiguous question and think Tails-Heads is the same as Heads-Tails

Mathematicians would say 1/2 because you can remove factors (such as one of the coins).

Realists would say 1/3 because of the facts given.

Could be 1 of 3 outcomes
Heads Tails
Tails Heads
Heads Heads.
So it's a 1 out of 3 chance.
Not gonna lie i thought it was 50% chance until i thought about it.

Your all wrong, yoy cant flip a pic and as they are both not on heads it 0%

Thanks for playong

Read the post dumbass, I already answered TWICE

Here
Learn Bayes theorem you cunt

>
>Could be 1 of 3 outcomes
>Heads Tails
>Tails Heads
>Heads Heads.
>So it's a 1 out of 3 chance.
>Not gonna lie i thought it was 50% chance until someone else posted it.

*you’re, *you, *can’t, *it’s, *playing

Its ok bud, its ok

this.

So it'll happen 3 times for every time you try? Neat.

Except you’re a fucking retard because it’s 50% chance both coins land heads. Bayes is bullshit in this equation because you know one coin will always land heads up, which removes it as a variable.

AT LEAST retards
That's 2/3

1/3

I didn't need to use Bayes, I just imagined all outcomes in a table.

So impressed

It's exactly 1/4+1/4^2+1/4^3+1/4^4+1/4^5+...

read again retard.

I’m not, he didn’t even get the answer right, what’s so impressive about that?

What about the chance of landing on its side?

The chance that 2 coins land head when 1 already landed is %50 since there is 1 coin left

You're the dumbest motherfucker in this thread

1/3

Not a variable of the question.

>being this retarded
it says one of them so it could be the first one or the second one, dumbass

Normally it's
HEADS-TAILS 25%
TAILS-HEADS 25%
TAILS-TAILS 25 %
HEADS-HEADS 25%
But since at least ONE has heads, there's no way that there's TAILS-TAILS.
HEADS-TAILS 33%
TAILS-HEADS 33%
HEADS-HEADS 33%
Chance is 33%.

Walk me through, how do you use Bayes theorem for this?

Literally that simple.

>implying it matters WHICH coin lands heads.
Which coin landing heads doesn’t fucking matter one bit. One always lands heads, it’s irrelevant. Only the coin that will land heads/tails matters. Fucking amerifag with your common core bullshit.

Holy fuck, it's like talking to a fucking nigglet kid with down syndrome.

Let explain it to you nice and slow you dumb fucking moron.

P(A) = probability that all coins will be heads (1/4)
P(B) = probability that at least 1 coin is heads (3/4)
P(B|A) probability that 1 coin is heads given that both coins are heads (1/1)
P(A|B) = probability of A given B, solve for this dumbfuck

P(A|B) = (1*(1/4))/(3/4) = 1/3

Sarcasm u fuckwit

Keep being retarded it’s fun watching you be this fucking wrong. Maybe if you believe enough then 1/3 will somehow magically become the answer. Fucking idiot.

youtube.com/watch?v=Sz3VwRLsfX0
Impossible.

I got the chance of american nickle landing on side as 1/6000 chance from wikipedia
1/6000 +2x = 1
x= (1 -1/6000)*1/2
x= (5999/6000)*1/2
x= 5999/12000
so probability for heads or tails = 5999/12000
total combos are
(5999/12000)^2 = 35988001/144000000
1/6000 * 5999/12000 = 5999/7200000
HH 35988001/144000000
HT 35988001/144000000
HS 5999/7200000
TT 35988001/144000000
TH 35988001/144000000
TS 5999/7200000
SS 1/36000000
SH 5999/7200000
ST 5999/7200000

possible combos are
HH
HT
HS
TH
SH

I don't know how to go any further than this because probability is different for results can math fag spot me

Ambiguously phrased question cannot be answered correctly. There are several ways your question could be interpreted. Do you mean:
A) One particular coin (call it coin A) is heads and you want the odds that the other coin is also heads
B) You are flipping both coins as normal and disregarding results that don't have at least 1 "heads"
Without knowing which you mean, it is impossible for there to be a correct answer. Oh, that's right, that's how bait works.

the answer is 0%, its 50/50 to begin with, one heads so the other by laws of probability will be tails

End of

retard, there are 3 outcomes possible and all 3 are equally probable.

heads-heads
heads-tails
tails-heads

1/3

What is the probability that this guys is:

A.) The offspring of two siblings from Alabama
B.) A nigglet who took one too many hits of meth
or C.) Just a cunt troll

Thoughts?

Dumb nigger detected

Has anyone got 2 coins to just test this

That effort

i kek'd

>heads
nice

Finally someone gets it

TH and HT are the same thing, this is a combination problem, not permutation

It's 50% you fucking retards

>given one coin lands heads.
This removes the possibility of a TT outcome.
Now we are at 1/3.
TH=0
HH=1
HT=0

HT and TH register as the same output. 0= false 1= true.

Well then, explain why it's 50%.

You guys are all fucking stupid and are confusing outcomes and probability as being the same thing.

If one coin is ALWAYS going to be heads, then the probability of the other coin being heads isn't changed by which order you toss the coins in. When we're talking probability then heads-tails and tails-heads would qualify as the same value. There was always going to be one coin in there that was heads. As such the only thing youre actually calculating as far as probability is concerned is the potential results of the coin that isn't guaranteed. And as such there are only two probable answers, one coin flipped heads and one flipped tails, or both coins flipped heads, so the actual PROBABILITY of both being heads is 1/2.

Now if the question were, ,what are the possible outcomes of two coins being tossed assuming one always lands heads." Then you guys would be right. There would be three, Heads-Tails, Tails-Heads and Heads-Heads, since in this case the order that the coins are tossed in actually matters.

Op?

See here.

Im going to bed, good luck guys

I said 1/3 retard.

I'm trying to understand how to use Bayes for this. So you got:

P(HH|H) = P(H|HH) * P(HH) * 1/P(H)

P(H) = 0.5, P(HH) = 0.25, P(H|HH) = 1

But this equates to 0.5 in the end. Wtf?

I looked up the Boy/Girl paradox and apparently P(H) is supposed to be 0.75. But I don't really see how to get that short of counting all the possible outcomes (HH, HT, TH, TT). Is there a better way to get P(H)? What kind of jewish shit is this?

100% one coin on heads

so its only asking the chance that one coin will be heads, so the answer depends on various factors, including the weight, shape, and thickness of the coin, not to mention the force applied to it. The probability is therefore nearly impossible to have correct.

That's the probability of both coins being heads given that a specific one of them is heads.

OP asked if at least one coin is heads. The main difference is that it's unspecified which one.

American logic.

7

Nice job, but care to explain how to do it using Bayes formula?

its fucking ~50%, wtf does each's probability has to do with the other coin's probability

>7
check'd

And what i'm saying is that that wouldn't actually affect the probability of both being heads, just the number of potential outcomes.