How smart is Sup Forums?

How smart is Sup Forums?

Other urls found in this thread:

lmgtfy.com/?q=gambler's fallacy
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox
jsfiddle.net/hn0s6e55/1/
twitter.com/NSFWRedditVideo

25%

inb4 retarded memers who can't probability but love sucking traps off

85%

50%

Fuck
Who got it?

1/3

Well... take a coin and put it on the head and never touch it again. (Because it would land on head anyway). Now take a second coin and flip. Repeat that 1000 times and it will be by around 500/500.

1/3

HT, HH, TH. 1/3 right?

Anyone who doesn't say 50% is a god damn retard.
One is automatically heads, which leaves one coin with a 50-50 chance.

HH (1)
HT (2)
TH (3)
TT (not applicable, at least one landed heads)

1/3

You must be the same guy who keeps yelling that one should not change doors in the Monty Hall show.

>two coins
>one is guaranteed heads
>one coin left
The question might as well be what are the odds that one coin will land heads up.

HH (1)
HT (2)

1/2

HT and TH are the same fucking thing dipshits
50%

...

That is incorrect - there is a big difference between "one specific coin is heads" and "One of the two coins is heads", and you are conflating these two concepts.

Might as well stop trying to explain it to me, I'm done replying in this bait thread.
Peace out nigger.

...

25cents

33%

1/2

0%
i never get what i want

This

51/49

It depends on which side is heavier and it's the headside with an euro.

Over 9000

Depends. How many times are you going to flip them?

If you get heads a bunch of times, a streak in tails will eventually become due and increase in likelihood.

.75?

That's gambler's fallacy.

P(a) = 1
P(b) = 0.5
p(a x b) = P(a) x P(b) becase they are independent
p(a|b) = [p(a) x p(b)] / p(b)
p(a|b) = (1 x 0.5)/0.5 = 0.25

You don't know which coin is going to land heads, fucknuts.

It's no fallacy. Everybody knows that a streak can create a statistical anomaly that causes the scales of chance to balance themselves.

Go back to school, kid.

Here we go again

Are we considering odd they both lands head before or after you've flipped one?

(1/2)^2 = 0.25 = 25%

lmgtfy.com/?q=gambler's fallacy

50% chance. One is guaranteed to land heads, so the chance of having 2 heads is only determined by the flipping of one of the coins.

Flipping one coin is 50/50 split of heads or tails ideally.

the chance that a coin flip results in heads will be the same for every flip, u faggot

AT LEAST ONE OF THEM LANDS HEAD
ONE OF THEM WILL BE HEAD 100%, SO IT'S 50% FOR THE OTHER TO BE HEAD

I'm surprised how stupid people are lol.

Easy, 50%.
either they do or they dont.

wow youre stupid

I an't clicking that shit nigger.

I know I'm right. I've been in Vegas more than you've been in pussy.

You are way off and that is not even close. The answer is 1/3. Everyone will keep fighting and this will go on forever like always cause of that dang ol ambiguity.

en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox

this

It doesn't matter, one will so it's fixed. One is constant or that's what the question implied.

If one is constant it doesn't matter which one. It could be a different one everytime. The theoretical probability for flipping one coin and getting heads is all we need, the other coin has not probability of being tails it is constant.

/thread

Even though it's fully explained there. People will keep arguing since the paradox goes against your intuition.

It depends on what you mean we can say 50% if its guarented if coin A is already heads then we just worry about coin B, so 50%

If that is not the case and we are just talking about flipping both coins and only counting the count when one lands heads we are left with 33%.

1)A - Heads B - Heads
2)A - Heads B - Tails
3)A - Tails B - Heads
4)A -Tails B- Tails

We can eliminate 4, because neither landed heads, and see that the probability of both being heads is 1/3

Oh, it's chronic retardation. I'm sorry user.

50%

>It doesn't matter,

What kind of fucking autistic ass probability is that?

> One is constant

You don't know which one is the constant so you figure out the odds by considering each possible outcome, you fucking chimp.

You can't say "It doesn't matter which one it is because you're too fucking lazy to do the math. This isn't your highschool math homework where you can meme your way out of using your brain. What if the data set was larger? Would you be pulling random numbers out of your ass there as well? Oh its 50/50 because it's either there or it isn't, said the assclown.

Correct answers

2 and 3 are the fucking same you ignorant nigger faggot. Die of nigger aids.

None are guaranteed to land on heads.
You only pay attention to flood that have at least one coin being heads.
I don't even know why I'm bothering to point this out because I know you won't get it

All the retards that say 50% should come and play 2-up with me.
I'll gladly take your money

It IS 50% tho.

Suck a nigger dick

That is a meaningless semantic argument. Either they are 2 different possibilities or they are one possibility that occurs twice as often as the others. Either way, the math is the same.

Awww. Look at it changing the problem without realizing it.

sure 50 %
the other coin is set

Sup Forums is dumb

It isn't, which is why 2-up makes money as a gambling game.
No gambling game exists that runs off 50/50 odds, because it can't make money

You would think it's basically like throwing one coin, since the other coin is always heads.
but in reality all this does is delete the possibility of having two tails, and replacing it
with tails and heads.


First throw:

50% Tails and 50% Heads


Second throw[dependant on first throw]:

Tails(50% * 100% tails = 50% HT/TH)

Heads(50% * 50% Heads and 50% * 50%
Heads = 25% HH and 25% HT)


Sorry for not just uploading a graphic and instead posting this messy text shit, but retarded Sup Forums doesn't allow me to upload the file for no fucking reason at all.

Upload failed

jsfiddle.net/hn0s6e55/1/

Nah. Sup Forums is just as smart as many famous mathematicians. This has been argued about in length for a very long time and some people feel very strongly about it.
Read about it here It's actually pretty interesting. The answer is 1/3 by the way.

yes... if 1 coin's result is pre-defined it's like not throwing that coin at all, which means it's the same as throwing just 1 single coin, which we all know has a 50% chance of landing heads

>This isn't your highschool math homework where you can meme your way out of using your brain.
3/10 made me reply.

It's not pre defined.
That's not how probability works.
That's why the question says IF

50% señor

You’re a dumbass

Possible combinations are:
TT
TH
HT
HH

Combinations where at least one of them lands on head are:

HT
TH
HH

So its 3/4 or 75%

The top two are the fucking same faggot

this

Take out two coins

Sit one heads up and don’t fucking touch it

Now you only have one coin to flip

So 1/2

If you say anything else then you need to get face raped by a pack of aids infested niggers

Over 9000.
Actually, it's 1/3.

2/3
One of the coins have to land on heads so it leaves us with only three other outcomes.

I meant 1/3 xdd

1/3
H,T T,H H,H

The first two are the same you moron

The question is really vague it may be either:
50% First coin: heads
~25% Second coin: heads
~25% Second coin: tails
50% First coin: tails
~50% Second coin: heads
so 25% or:
100% First coin: heads
~50% Second coin: heads
~50% Second coin: tails
so 50%. It depends on how you interpret "At least one of them lands heads". Therefore, the one and only right answer is that OP is a faggot.

It’s only vague if you’re an idiot.

It’s 50%.

It's 360% YOU FUCKING RETARDS...

The same bs quizzes every fucking day.

No they aren’t. Each coin has to be treated as independent of the other as well as a separate iteration for the purposes of calculating probability. T, H and H, T are different because both coins are flipped. And the probability of either coin being the one that is on heads(to satisfy the given circumstance) has to be taken into account.

Nope, it's only clear if you are a moron.

50/50. It lands or it not.

No matter how many coins you flip, its 50-50 that they all land on the same side.

Think about it. I flip one, its 50% land on heads.

I flip another one, thats also 50% to land on heads.
And so on and so on.

God damn you’re stupid

Ever heard of "multiplication rule"?
If not, then well, u stoopit, but let me educate you. Every next probability you multiply, so for 4 rolls you would have 50*50*50*50=6250000% to throw 4 heads in a row.

So H, T and T, H are the same thing right?

Yes.

All possibilities combinations: HH, HT, TH, TT

Since OP pics states: "At least one of them lands heads", the last possibility is ruled out.

All combinations have the same chance.

So the answer is: 1/3 as already said by
All other tards need to go back to school.

No.

Which means since either coin can either be H or T, the probability of it being that combination is twice as likely as H, H, right? Since it can happen in either direction.

HH
HT
TH
TT

25%

2 coins
1 head
2x2 =4
4%1 that's like 80%
so 2 landing head is 2+2 is 4 - 1 that's 3 out of 1 times

Bear with me here, trying to educated this mongoloid over here

50% Because one coin is flipped.

What are the odds of both being heads? 33% Because there are three possible outcomes, not 4.
2 heads.
2 tails.
1 heads 1 tails.

If one coin is already heads, then the possibility of two tails coming up is removed and there are only two possible outcomes, meaning 50% because possible outcomes are either 2 heads or 1 heads 1 tails.

>inb4 retards not understanding conditional probability
>inb4 slightly dumber retards trying to claim the problem is ambiguous (it isn't)

answer is 1/3

33%
TT is categorically left out
leaves you with three options of which one is desired.
one of three is 33%

itt: trolls trolling trolls
badly
end yourselves

there are 4 configurations
00
01
10
11
where 1 indicates head.
The premise was that at least one lands head, so there are 3 configurations left
01
10
11
Only one of them is both heads, so its 1/3