So here's my take on an "Anglish". I've constructed an English similar to modern English...

So here's my take on an "Anglish". I've constructed an English similar to modern English, except without the influence of Latin and French. I also tried to put West Germanic cognates in place of present North Germanic cognates. I want to know how intelligible this is to Germanic-speaking people (including English speakers).

Ure faðer hwer is in heven,
gehæligd bi ðin name,
mag ðin coningrice come
and ðin willen bi dan,
on Erþ as it is in heven.
Giv to us ðis dæg ure dæglig breað,
and forgiv us of ure sinnen
as we haven also forgeven ðos hwer gesinnen against us.
And læd us noht into forsecing,
buten lysen us from yvil.
Amen.

IPA:
a = [ɑ]
æ = [æ]
b = [b]
c = [k]
d = [d]
ð = [ð]
e = [e]
e at the end of a word = [ə]
er = [ər]
f = [f]
þ = [þ]
g = [g]
h = [h]
h before consonant = [x]
i = [i]
j = [j]
l = [l]
m = [m]
n = [n]
o = [o]
o = [o]
p = [p]
r = [r]
s = [s]
t = [t]
u = [ʊ]
v = [v]
w = [w]
y = [u]
z = [z]


Like modern English, there are no long consonants in this.

We raped you, deal with it.

ai = [ei]
ei = [ɑi]
Raped the Anglos in 1066 sure, but came begging to the Anglos every time from that point forth.

>came begging to the Anglos
Nice delusion but it isn't real

Well, since i recognized the text, it was pretty easy to guess what the words meant

> without latin and French
What's the point?

sc = [ʃ]
h at end of word = [x]
Hwæt cuþ Ih scowen ðu ðen?

*cuð

What could i ...?

show you then?

>came begging to the anglos

If you say so.

so the language has no grammatical cases?

Modern English has grammatical cases though, that sentence showcases the dative case (same inflection as accusative case). Germanic inflection is really unintuitive anyways so English made the right call by developing a simpler case system.

That looks cool
I'm glad you guys are starting to use your real language.
I would be mad if I had to use the words of a people I hate.

Yes I agree, a language shouldn't be unnecessary complicated

what's the difference between ð and þ again? I know they're both the "th" sound but I forgot how each of them are pronounced

>I've
no nigger
you are be stelin those ideas and that aint cool

ð is the voiced dental fricative (th in "that") and þ is the unvoiced dental fricative (th in thing). The difference between them is like the difference between v and f.

autism
seek help

>I've constructed
No, Anglish is already a thing since a long time faggot

English has barely any contractions compared to other languages like French or German.

what the hell are you talking about?
I'm talking about Anglish, you did not construct it, it already exist since quite a while

only 30% of people from the british isles are anglo-saxon

deal with it

My bad, I skimmed over the posts and thought you two were complaining about my use of "I've" since a lot of English speakers take issue with contractions being "unsophisticated" and a lot of foreigners take issue with learning the contractions. Anyways, I didn't say I created Anglish, I said here's my take on "an 'Anglish'". Note the indefinite article.

what the fuck are you talking about nigger
I AM TALKING ABOUT THE FACT THAT YOU HAVE STOLEN THIS IDEA
IT IS NOT YOURS
YOU FUCKING FUCKHEAD

Obsessed

Also linguistics =/= genetics, and correct me if I'm wrong, but OP has made no assertions about the genetics of Anglo people, but rather has simply taken a deeper look into the English language.

read the post directly above.
correct