Why did all of Latin America rebel at the same time? Why were none of Spain's colonies loyal...

Why did all of Latin America rebel at the same time? Why were none of Spain's colonies loyal? Canada never took advantage of British wars to rebel.

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Because of napoleonic wars.
And the spanish colonies did try to form a "commonwealth" with spain but the King had an autistic spree and tried to reconquer everything and got btfo twice.

Real Anglos are incapable of treason or backstabbery.

All of this happened because the French took over the Spanish crown. Pople in Spain and Hispanic America were becoming aware of the French ideas. This "Afrancesados" were against the monarchy.
There were Royalists and Separatist in Hispanic America. But as long as a French was the king of Spain no one wanted to be part of their empire. When the king (Fernando el Deseado) that everyone wanted to be in charge finally got to power, he let everyone down. He wanted to reconquer everyone (Royalists and Separatists) alike. And ignored the agreements of La Corte de Cadiz.

Cuba and Puerto Rico stayed part of Spain

It was an infighting. This has been repeated to tiredness.

Criollos didn't originally want independence from Spain but to occupy the main positions in the government of the new world (it was motivated the jewish greed of the Spanish blood). The (now) Colombian declaration of Independence of 1810 even stated that they weren't rebelling against the "rightful" Spanish king, and instead invited him to come to the new world and rule with them as his court.

But because everything happened during the Spanish war against Napoleon things soon became a shit storm and criollos ended up going to war against their fellow Spaniards while dragging everyone else with them.

Whahaha....Good joke! Have you considered a career as comedian?

Damn the fr*Nch forever. Their shitty revolution cucked the world.

Why do the French constantly fuck things up? They are just like the Germans.

There were loyalists and rebels in every country. Peru remained as the last loyalist stronghold until 1824 I think. Some isolated parts of isolated countries remained loyal to Spain for decades like the Islands in the South of Chile.

Every time a country achieved independence there, they worked together on helping the independence of their neoghbors, so as to prevent Spain retaking power in the region.
So they revolutionized together lile the states in the US, but did not need to stay united afterwards because the King of Spain was already out of the game thanks to Napoleon

This

But oh noes, everything went wrong

To be more specific, Chiloé remained spanish until 1826, 8 years after Chile sealed its own independency

>Peru remained as the last loyalist stronghold until 1824
That late? Wow, that year we joined Mexico

>Why did all of Latin America rebel at the same time?
They didn't, the Argentinos jumped the gun even while the cortes were working on the Cádiz constitution.

Mexico would've remained a part of the Empire if Spain hadn't backed out of its pledge to grant equality to new worlders.

we? what part?

>we joined Mexico
Are you from Chiapas?

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Yes

And what was the difference between American Spain and European Spain?

Because Napoleon beat spaniards and invaded them... So when this notice came out was like: "if the spanish king is in jail and now Spain is technically France... What we are supposed to be?"

Long story short, each colony made it's own army and defeated the spaniards in between 10 years.

The rebellious attitude the locals had wouldn't have just disappeared if the French didn't invade Spain, you know. France capturing the Spanish king was just the trigger, but the climate and reasons behind the rebellions were there decades before that.

And what were the reasons?

Different castas had limits on the jobs they could do, a criollo (Spaniard born in Mexico) could never become Viceroy for instance. Spaniards betrayed the Cádiz constitution which would've granted equality to all.

True, the freemasons were already planning it.
Logia Lautaro is an example. They were criollos with ideas of freedom and personal interests with connections in Europe

This casta were still a thing in México after so many years of race-mixing?

There are a number of things, but the Enlightment ideals were slowly being introduced, the colonies were only allowed to trade with the Metropolis, a late 18th century law made creoles not allowed to occupy public offices, etc. There's even a theory that it was locals saying "hold on, if the French now occupy Spain, that would make us subjects of France and even if we're not fans of Spain, we don't want anything to do with France, so we'll formally separate since we don't recognize the current Spanish government as legitimate."
I heard people saying that Spain was also entering its final stages as an Empire, and the colonies just decided to jump ships, not to get dragged under, given the chance.

Castas were created cause of race-mixing

>creoles
ahahah even if that word is correct it does not mean what you think it means. its use is different in english language even if it means the same

too lazy to type the "Americas born Europeans" tbqh

Wow, this is all very interesting.

Just like the French Revolution, the upper class couldn't acces to power back then because they were in a semi-feudal system imposed by the central government, so they mobilized all the peasants to achieve independence and get the power

anglos are little bitchs who can't part with their master cock

y

It's more that Britain more or less gave the same rights and freedoms to their colonies, while late in the Spanish Empire, they made it so Spain born people had more rights and possibilities than the colonists, and that disgruntled the local power holders.
No reason to rebel if you enjoy the same rights as the guy you're rebelling against.

That's awful. it would be nice having the Spanish Empire alive to this day.