Which pattern follow most people withouth musical background when it comes to musical composition?
Do they play in any key at all? Do the use modal mixtures all the time? How come they sound "good"?
I've been studying diatonic scales for a few months now and I can't seem to play out of key without feeling like it's wrong.
I dont havea backed up answer, but what I've seen is that people just go with what theyve heard before
depends in what music they grew up with. And also The country, The tradicional music from México is very different from tradicional hindú music.
that influence alot too
>I've been studying diatonic scales for a few months now and I can't seem to play out of key without feeling like it's wrong
That's why you don't study music theory.
actually most people with no background experience choose one key and stick to it, or only write in c major/minor
yeah definitely dont think for a second that playing a note that doesnt belong in a scale is wrong or something. Your ears have acustomed to sound of a major diatonic scale. But its not wrong at all
That's true, but I'm refering to western pop music in general.
Playing wildly out of key is always going to sound like shit/jazzy. CHANGING keys is another topic. If you're playing in a major key, try changing to it's relative minor key (Eg: C major > A minor) for the key change.
And modes aren't out of key scales. They're the exact same notes as the parent scale with a different root, and work 'best' over their chord counterparts (Eg: Key=Cmajor: Playing G major chord in the key, you'd play the 5th mode over it starting at G it would be G-A-B-C-D-E-F focusing on the G for the resolve during the whole thing
>I can't seem to play out of key without feeling like it's wrong.
Listen to atonal music then to cleanse your palette
I've been trying playing with the iv chord when playing the major scale, it sounds really weird right now.
This might be the solution.
also to give you some ideas of out-of-key notes that are more "okay" than others, try blues scale with the ADDED flat 5th, or dominant 7th where the 7th is flattened (If you're in Dmaj, you'd play C instead of the C# from the major scale
again I dont have a backed up answer, but western pop music is all about The major key, also chord progresiones that give resolution, like I, Vi, IV, V or something.
those generic progresions that have The first fourth and sixth degree
Boomp
going from IV to iv is a nice trick, the beatles used it. sounds pretty distinctive.
People without music background copy chord progressions usually verbatim, usually only changing them by a small amount by ear if they feel like fucking about. That establishes a key without knowing what it is. It's pretty easy to sing/make a melody over the top of a chord progression without any background by just playing what sounds right. I don't know why you think playing out of key is important for basic pop music. It'll happen naturally if you just make melodies that sound good and you're getting your influence from a wide variety of pop (which should be true if you've been exposed to the radio, ever).
ya that's good one. hendrix also did something where he just followed the circle of 5ths on a chord progression. I forget the song, i think it was Hey Joe? he essentially just started on a chord, say Emaj, went to the 5th (Bmaj), then to Bmaj's 5th (F), etc. sounds pretty cool
goddamn there is some misinformation in this thread. you guys should read some theory books or take a college class or something
explain yourself
I've gotten a lot of nice tips and reminders itt. Can you tell me where they're wrong so I don't walk away thinking the wrong thing?
idk even the OP's question is just strange.
>Do they play in any key at all? Do the use modal mixtures all the time? How come they sound "good"?
I mean let's take early Beatles stuff. Diatonic through and through, mainly I-IV-V stuff even. Then they started branching out, using borrowed chords, modal progressions (Eleanor Rigby), advanced key changes (Penny Lane, Strawberry Fields). My point is that you don't need to know theory to play with the rules, a lot of it is intuition.
That said, it seems like people ITT have a weird concept of what a key is. For instance, Would you think that a borrowed chord (V/V) is out of key? Technically it is, but it sounds great. Or a song like God Only Knows, for instance. Verses are ambiguous, the tonic is constantly shifting, only settling during the chorus. Brian's constantly using these 7th chords in 3rd inversions, but it sounds great. It works for the song perfectly.
I don't think it makes sense to TRY to fuck around with key before you understand the reasoning behind what you're doing (not in a theory sense really, but in a intuitive sense). There's a reason that songwriters normally go through a type of songwriting progression before they hit their peak. I can't think of any musicians that came out writing advanced progressions and harmonies before knowing the basics. And despite what people may say, it never hurts to know theory.
i was being too harsh, nobody's explicitly wrong itt really, it's just kinda a lack of specific knowledge. like is talking about how a dominant 7th where the 7th is flattened is out of key, but that's the mixolydian scale and it isn't really out of key if you play it over the V chord, because (if you're in Dmaj like he said) you're playing A mixolydian (the V chord), which has the same notes as the D major scale, just starting on A. And it happens to be what makes a dominant chord a dominant chord (the flat 7)
We musicians who either have never studied or dropped out of music school develop a way to communicate ideas without knowing everything in music theory and how it fits together. I think that's what you're reacting to.
What the fuck are you talking about. You don't play Mixolydian over a V chord you play the scale of the I (root) chord. You literally just arpeggiate and play some scale tones while avoiding the m9 interval. That's like saying anytime you encounter a ii chord in a song you play Dorian.
Does nobody actually know what a mode is?