How smart is Sup Forums?

How smart is Sup Forums?

49.2%

75%

25%

50%

33%

25%

This

420%

100%

1/3

This. The options are TH, HT, or HH (since TT has been ruled out) so it's 1/3=33%

100%

50% and any faggot who says it will land on its side is a fucking communist

abc%

This sounds right

You're all wrong... there are no coins because the niggers stole them....

It's not hard. Take inventory of all possible options. HH, TT, TH, HT. 4 total options, and 3 of them qualify for the condition of the question. 3 out of 4. 75%.

>ince TT has been ruled out

Where are you getting this from?

3 out of 4 of possible outcomes (HT, TH, HH, TT) have heads. HT and TH are the same because only at least one of them has to be heads. It doesn't matter if both are heads because the question asks for at least one of them is. TT isn't ruled out because it's still a possible outcome. 75%.

HT=TH
You don't include H1H2 do you?
50%

>25%

25% is the probability of NOT getting at least one of the coins being heads.

>at least one of them is heads
Are you retarded?

both heads 25%
one of two 75%

>at least one landed heads

>HT=TH

No, those are 2 distinct, separate and equally likely outcomes.

Answer is 1/3

3 fucking idiots so far.

The coins don't magically appear as one another you autist. There is one coin and a second coin, and they aren't interchangeable

Trolls playing games. 50% brah. Previous outcomes have no impact on probability. You could roll over 9000 heads in a row and roll 9001 still has a 50-50 chance.

>says the mentally handicapped individual

33%
the possibilities are
TT
HT
TH
HH
since TT is ruled out,
HT
TH
HH
Note that HT=/=TH since the coin flips are independent of each other rendering these scenarios as distinct
therefore 1/3 or 33%
>Stop being so fucking retarded and lrn2probablilty

>previous outcomes
Too bad these conditions are simultaneous

Thank you

Where does it say they were flipped simultaneously?

Actually I didn't read the question totally. I thought it just said what's probability of at least one being heads.

It's asking that out of the throws where at least one lands heads, what is the probability that both will be heads. So the probability of there being at least one head is 75%, because the possible throws are HH, TT, HT, TH. Of those 3 possible outcomes where there is at least 1 head, only one of them is HH. 1 out of 3. 33%.

>You don't include H1H2 do you?
HH is the same no matter what the order of coin flips. Coin A is heads and so is coin B
HT and TH are distinct since in HT, coin A is H and coin B is T. in TH, coin A is T and coin B is H.

It's a simple problem about Baye's theorem. The answer should be 1/3, as the probability of getting two heads is 1/4 and the probability of getting at least one is 3/4. So, if you had to use Baye's theorem , you would get 1/3.

However, as my esteemed colleagues have already shown, there is no need to get so deeply involved in probability, as the sample set is so small you could obtain the answer by listing out the possibilities.

>being this autistic

>Where does it say they were flipped simultaneously?

They can be flipped simulataneously, sequentially or a single coin could be flipped twice.

In all cases where at least 1 coin/flip lands heads, you will get 2 heads ~33.3333% of the time.

Learn conditional probability user.

1/3

You're absolutely right. But you don't know which coin is heads. All you know is that two coins were flipped, and at least one is heads. Therefore the fact that previous outcomes have no impact on probability isn't valid in this scenario

His brain is only capable of perceiving one coin flip at a time. He doesn't understand the difference between one event following another and two events

Then H1H2 needs a different square than H2H1, nigger. They are two separate entities after all.

Looks like eropeam coins to me. They violate all human laws constantly. So i'd say 0$ of the time. Enjoy syrian fucking you daughter asshole. #trump2016

read this you pleb

Why do you make Americans look bad?

Here's a thought experiment. We know that fate will turn one of those coins to heads. Let's not even flip the first coin. Just place it on the table. Fate met. Now, we'll flip the variable coin. H or T. 50/50

it's 1 in 2. the first event is determined. the second has two equal options. all other answers are fucked

As long as the weight of the heads side is equal to the weight of the tails side, this is correct.

Don't reproduce, friendo.

>If the first coin is heads
possibilities are:
HH
HT
so 50%
but it doesn't say the first coin is heads, it says at least one is heads
so
HH
TH
HT
so 33%
come on now.

Great argument. Now show your work

aight

It's very difficult for retards to understand the difference unfortunately

1/3

Now I know why Monty Hall was so popular in America.

Everybody loved his show famblam.

This is fucking simpelton shit compared to Monty Hall unfortunately. What a fucking embarrassment...

The idea that one is guaranteed is ludicrous in itself. So let's get wacky and say in a parallel reality I instead set the second coin down to ensure the heads.
Reality A has a 50/50 chance and reality B has a 50/50 chance.
I get your logic, but it works completely outside of what is possible. The only solution, in our world is 50/50.
If we're working outside our laws, I argue there's an 83% chance because purple.

The autism is off the charts

I prefered Monty Python to be honest

But TH & HT are the exact same. So it's still 50%

Point taken, question is not specific enough. both answers supportable.

Are you retarded?

H1H2 = H2H1

H1T2 is different to H2T1

Pic related

Answer is 1/3

>Let's not even flip the first coin. Just place it on the table.

You're fixing a coin as heads. The OP does NOT fix a coin.

In your scenario, one coin can never be tails, and the answer to that would be 1/2.

In OP question, EITHER coin could be tails, just not both, giving 3 equally likely outcomes:

HH
HT
TH

So answer to OP question is 1/3

>the first event is determined.

No. At least 1 coin out of 2 landed heads. You don't know which, therefore there are 3 equally likely scenarios.

Coin1 = Heads and Coin2 = Heads
or
Coin1 = Heads and Coin2 = Tails
or
Coin1 = Tails and Coin2 = Heads

HH is 1 of those 3

1/3

consider this:
A friend of yours tells you he just flipped two coins, and at least one of them was heads.
The coins have already been flipped. Unless he's lying, at least one is guaranteed to be heads. Therefore the possibilites are
HH
HT
TH
And that is very much within the laws of our universe, I assure you

"at least one of them landed heads". I think it is a semantic problem of both of you.

Why would HT or TH change the probability. If it has already landed HT or TH it doesn't change the fact the chance of the other one landing H.... 50%

if one always lands on heads, then surely it's 50/50?

You're such a faggot it's unbelievable

1 of them is guaranteed to land on heads, so it's 50%. It doesn't matter if it's coin 1 or 2!

All of you saying 33% are retarded!

>The idea that one is guaranteed is ludicrous in itself.

It's not guaranteed that a specific coin lands heads, you fucking simpleton.

2 coins were flipped, and at least 1 of them landed heads by chance.

Can you understand the difference between fixing a coin as heads on the table
and
flipping a coin and allowing it to fall as tails?

OP doesn't SET or FIX any coin, which is why the answer is 1/3, and not 1/2.

>The only solution, in our world is 50/50.
Maybe in your retarded world.

In reality, the answer to this basic conditional probability question is 1/3

Holy shit, user.

Pic Related

Haha, again- not an argument.

Sorry, friend. There's nothing more I can do to help you.
Google the boy or girl paradox, marilyn vos savant will explain much better than I ever could

>TH & HT are the exact same.

No, they're not. Imagine 1 of the coins was blue and the other was red.

How is
Blue = Heads and Red = Tails
the same as
Blue = Tails and Red = Heads?

Can you understand how those are different?

HT is NOT the same as TH.

They are 2 distinct and separate outcomes, each of them is equally likely to occur, giving us 3 excluding TT

HH
HT
TH

1/3

Its the Monty Hall Problem. Door 2. Goat. Switch to door 1. Win every time.

69%

That is meaningless.
Notice OP said that one of them already landed heads.

So what OP is asking "What is the chance for a single coin to land heads?"

The answer is 50% (assuming both sides weigh the same etc.)

100%

>landed heads
heads up or heads down isnt important just so long as they still had that side attached to the coin

One of the coins already landed heads

So you're saying that its 33% chance for a single coin to land heads?

50% wtf

using proof is futile. half the people in this thread are the same people who say evolution is just a theory in response to blatant evidence

It's definitely 50%. You lot saying 33% are retarded.

Wrong, he does set the coin. It is given that one has landed as heads. However, that does not mean you are incorrect.

Your posted example claims that all outcomes are equally likely, but that implies that we have not eliminated any outcomes.

Think of it this way. We have your problem at the very beginning. We flip two coins simultaneously, but only observe their final positions one at a time. Until we observe the first coin, you're right. 1-in-3 chance. But the moment we observe the first coin to be heads, the new question is "what is the second coin?"

Essentially, the argument here lies in the fact that you're considering the first coin unfixed, and the opposition is considering it to be fixed as heads. From a broader viewpoint, you're both right, but in a sequential sense.

Nah. Don't worry about it, the explanation is way over your head

>That is meaningless.

How?

>Notice OP said that one of them already landed heads.

No, it says 'at least one landed heads' implying either coin could be heads, or either coin could be tails, just not both.

>So what OP is asking "What is the chance for a single coin to land heads?"

No, OP is asking 'What is the probability that BOTH coins landed heads GIVEN that at least one coin landed heads?'

This is a basic conditional probability question.

The condition is "at least 1 coin landed heads"

Out of all possible and equally likely outcomes (HH, HT, TH, TT)
3 of them satisfy the condition of having at least 1 heads coin.

1 of those 3 is HH

1/3

1 guarenteed heads, so it becomes
>flip a coin, what are its chances of landing on heads?
50%

This.

It's 50% chance.

>Until we observe the first coin, you're right. 1-in-3 chance

No, that would be a 1/4 chance. If you observer 1 of the coins and it's heads, the probability of the other coin also being heads, and thus, both heads, is 1/2.

the point of the OP question is that the heads coin isn't specified, meaning that either coin could still be tails, just not both simultaneously.

understand the difference m8.

>Essentially, the argument here lies in the fact that you're considering the first coin unfixed, and the opposition is considering it to be fixed as heads. From a broader viewpoint, you're both right, but in a sequential sense.

No, the people who consider the "first coin" fixed are wrong, because they are making assumptions which don't exist in the question. They are answering a different question, just like in the image I posted.

If the First coin landed heads, the answer is 1/2

If AT LEAST 1 COIN landed heads, the answer is 1/3.

OP's question is the second one, and so the correct answer is 1/3

the answer is 50%

You're retarded, son.

Example 1
I toss first coin. It lands heads. I now have 50% chance for the next one to do so as well

Example 2
I toss the first coin, it lands tails
It is now meaningless to toss the second since I already lost (and it would come heads anyway)


How is this a 33% odds. Its 50%.

Fucking Christ! It's 25%. Did no one here go to school at all. Two coins, each with 50% chance to land on one side or the other. 50 / 2 = 25. It's 25% chance out of 100. 25:100. 5/2*10=25. This is literally 5th grade shit!

You're wrong though. The fact that one of the coins is forced to be heads, changes the equation. It doesn't matter if it's the left or the right, we know for a fact that one of them will be heads. Therefore it becomes a straight question of what the other coin will be, and that's 50/50. Heads or Tails.

nice bait

1 coin is always heads

the other coin has a 50/50 chance of landing on heads

50%

The problem with this question in the definition, What you have to ask yourself is can you really count H,T and T,H as different possible outcomes, seeing as the coins are only flipped once. In my opinion 1/3 is and answer to a different question. Where as if you apply common sense to this question, thinking about its application in real life, the answer is obviously 50%. In that case H,T and T,H are the same outcome making the probability H,T or H, H..in other words %50

There is a 100% chance I'll put both of them in my urethra.

Second coin could be heads.

Flip 2 coins

All possible outcomes are

Coin1 = Heads and Coin2 = Heads
Coin1 = Heads and Coin2 = Tails
Coin1 = Tails and Coin2 = Heads
Coin1 = Tails and Coin2 = Tails

At least 1 coin landed heads, so
Coin1 = Tails and Coin2 = Tails
is the only outcome no longer possible.

Th other 3 outcomes are all possible and all equally likely.

1 of them is both heads

1/3

>1 coin is always heads

ERRRRRRRRRR

Incorrect. Would you like to try again?

>at least one of them on heads
>one
1 coin always lands on heads

50% final answer

Remember to take into account the chance of a mis-minted coin that has been struck the same on both sides. It happens.
Source: Professional numismatist.

From a 5-year math universitygraduated, the answer is 33% and it has already been explained why. To those who are not convinced by solid proofs, just test it out. Put 2 coins in a bag and take them one at a time and note down the result. Put them back and do it again 20ish times to be statistically safe, it'll take you 2-3 mins. Because of the condition given, if you draw 2 tails it doesn't count ans you just put them back and proceed to a new extraction. 33%. Science works, bitches.