How smart is Sup Forums?

How smart is Sup Forums?

Other urls found in this thread:

courses.cs.washington.edu/courses/cse312/11wi/slides/04cprob.pdf
math.arizona.edu/~jwatkins/f-condition.pdf
twitter.com/SFWRedditVideos

do your own homework

That's so easy, a baby could figure it
50% because either they will or they will dont

Depends on what coin you toss.

the non autist answer is 50%
/thread

If the sun is at the right angle and Atleast 5 birds are within 3km radius, the coin will have 38% chance to hit heads

OP can only toss salad

>Not taking landing on sides into account

There are 4 options. HT HH TH TT. 3 of them have 1 heads as an option but only 1/3 has both. The answer is 33%

No you are bandwagoning on all the other autists that post in this shitty thread when it comes up. The probability is still 50/50 because the outcome of one of the coins is already given. It is basically asking what the odds of landing heads is with a single coin.

This is incorrect in this circumstance. We already had one outcome happen so technically that outcome is removed and now we're left with one, either the second coin will land heads or it will land tails. 50%

1/2 chance of get with one coin, two coins = 1/2 + 1/2 = 1, literally impossible not to get at least one head

In this situation only HT or HH is possible

>the incorrect answer is 50%

FTFY

Answer is 1/3

No you are the fucking autist of the 4 options given HH HT and TH have heads as an option TT is eliminated. The question says at least ONE of the coins is heads, meaning either the first OR the second. This includes all 3 remaining options. And only 1 of those 3 is the solution. The answer is 33%. How about you try thinking past the surface level faggot.

No. We don't have an outcome happen. You are assuming the first coin was flipped and It was heads, meaning it was either HT or HH. I see why you think that it's 50% but you are wrong. It was never said the first coin was heads, only that one of the coins was heads

>It is basically asking what the odds of landing heads is with a single coin.

TH is also possible and you cannot prove that it isn't.

1/3

If teh FIRST coin landed heads, the answer is 1/2.

if AT LEAST ONE coin landed heads, the answer is 1/3

Source: Washington University Math Dept.
courses.cs.washington.edu/courses/cse312/11wi/slides/04cprob.pdf

No, it isn't you stupid cunt.

There are 2 cases for a single coin flip to land heads, so getting heads is a 1 in 2 chance or 1/2.

There are 3 CASES to get AT LEAST 1 heads coin for a 2 coin flip:

heads, tails
or
tails, heads
or
both heads

All 3 of those are equally likely. All 3 are valid and contain at least 1 heads coin.

both heads is 1 of those 3 equally likely outcomes, so it's a 1 in 3 chance, or 1/3.

Stay in school, you retarded niggers.

1%

they will dont
fucking kek decent bait

Wow, I ballsed up that reply.

1/3

0% because neither coin has heads.

No

TH SH HH (given that the right one lands H)

It's 33% but since everyone saying 33% explained it wrong you're all fucking auts

Yeah I miss read the problem, just toke a glance at and missed the fact that it didn't specify which outcome it was.

Everyone here learned from some teacher that the answer is 1/3. I, however, discovered it all by myself.

Doesnt work like that you have to remove either the TH or HT because since one coin has already landed heads it cant change. So its just looking at the same result your just naming the already flipped coin second with TH and first with HT. Theyre the same result so you remove one giving you 50/50

>Theyre the same result

You are retarded. Congratulations.

Nigger, if you're trolling, you got me. If you're not, allow me to explain.

TH is NOT the same as HT.

FLip a penny and a quarter. At least 1 of them landed heads. so you could have:

penny=heads, quarter=tails
or
penny=tails, quarter=heads
or
both=heads

All 3 of those are different outcomes. All 3 are equally likely.

1/3

fuck you then, you discovered something that everybody know. Oh look! the earth gas gravity! crown me! fuck off fake bitch

So what's the answer?

N H 0.25
N N 0.25
H H 0.25
H N 0.25

The right answer that H >= 1 is 0.75 %

But that's not the question.

the answer is faggot.

are the coins used or new? because if they are used, there is scratchses in the coins that will affect rolling.

P(A|B)=P(AB)/P(B)=.25/.5=.5

P(A|B) = P(A^B) / P(B) = P(A) / P(B) = .25 / .5 = .5

l2probability fags

There's no need for jealousy and envy. I'm just a normal human being like you, just slightly more sophisticated and intelligent.

fucking kek i hate this thread.

you never know if people are just being retarded or if it's a trollception.

So to make this clear once and for all:
The possibility is 1/3 because the coin could land H, T or land on side.
Thus there are 3 possibilities and we can conclude a probability of 1/3

Retards

P (B) = 0.75

Answer is 1/3

Except P(B) = 0.75, in which case the answer is .333

Shitty b8 m8

It's 1/3 though

You're all retarded, 0%, with all the sandniggers in Europe the coin won't have the time to land before being stolen.

1. Completely ignore one of the coins. It's always heads. No, it doesn't matter if thrown first or not.
2. In stochastics a regular coin means 2 possible outcomes. No landing on sides bullshit.

It's 50%. Now fuck off.

5

some scientist done this study not to long ago. They said heads was more probable but, only sleightly b/c, it had the extra weight of the protruding face.

Therefore it's about 60% w/o doing any math and using the study.

I don't remember their exact percentage but, it was 60-70% heads.

If your answer to this high school level probabillity question is 50% you should just stop trying and go work for mcdonalds.

Either coin could be tails, you fucktard. Just not both at the same time. So you can't ignore any coin.

1/3

1/3, now fuck off.

The better question here is why you haven't placed the coins in your pocket yet. Why not just make a few extra cents, dude?

>implying the coins weren't already yours to begin with

I never understood why everyone was so angry at the people who (falsely) claim the probability is 0.5. For a person who hasn't studied prob/stats or has forgot this particular material from a long-ago math class they never paid attention in, all of their logic screams 50%. They aren't idiots or autists. They are relying on an assumption they've made from a real-world thought experiment. Those of us in the know should simply rely on giving them the correct explanation, with valid sources and theory to back it up. Simply saying, "1/3, you fuckbrains! So much stupid! haha autism!" not only lends zero credibility to the truth in your statement, but in fact has the effect of turning them emotionally and intellectually away from you and possibly the entire field of mathematics. The end result is a well-intentioned individual becoming offended and defensive of their incorrect answer.


>tl;dr Don't be a dick

>They aren't idiots

They are.>Simply saying, "1/3, you fuckbrains! So much stupid! haha autism!" not only lends zero credibility to the truth in your statement

But they stil think it's 50% even after given the correct explanations and solutions.

All I'm saying is I'm not that bored to find the probability of flipping coins. Unless you're into that then go ahead.

Smart enough to not get involved

Also
>Implying the coins were yours to begin with.

>I'm not that bored to find the probability of flipping coins
and yet here you are in a thread where faggots are arguing about "the probability of flipping coins"

except i wasnt the one who immediately assumed that they werent my coins, now was i?

all i did was tell you of another possible circumstance

Tell you what, fuck the coin toss shit we're now finding the probability of either having the coins to begin with or simply finding the coins elsewhere.

no fuck you i always have coins on me

...

I'll admit I thought it was 50% until I read the explanation. Misread the question and assumed the first coin came up heads.

take two coins. place one of them on a flat surface heads side up. flip the other one 1.000.000 times, write down the results. If you think the ratio will be 1/3 kill yourself.

that scenario isn't the same as the question. It clearly states two coins were flipped but in your experiment only one coin was flipped

I srsly think its 50%. Tossing a coin isnt quantum mechanics so that one landed coin will somehow change the chance of other

If you think that "at least one of the coins is heads" means "the first coin is always heads" then just kill yourself

You're immediately assuming that the coins were flipped in succession when the problem doesn't even specify

So what happens if both were flipped at the same time? What happens to your supposed logical answer?

3/5 like the niggers

1/4 - makes no difference to odds if one of them lands on heads or not. you still gotta flip.

That's a different scenario, friend.

Answer to your scenario is 1/2.

Answer to OP question is 1/3.

>I srsly think its 50%.

Because you're a bit stupid, but I'll try to help.

When you flip 2 regular coins, there are 4 equally likely outcomes possible. These are:

heads, heads
heads, tails
tails, heads
tails, tails

At least 1 landed heads, meaning that only
tails, tails
is no longer a possibility.

All 3 remaining outcomes are all still possible and equally likely.

1/3

No it's 1/3 we elaborated that many times.

what you didn't coinsider is that the coin could land on its side.

THat wasn't the question. The question is 2 coins are flipped - what are the odds of HH. The extra info is to confuse your little mind.
You fucking retarded cunts /b

1/3
laughing at all you niggas being absolutely certain thats its 50%

>they will dont
nice grammar fa33ot

It's a conditional probability question.

The answer is 1/3 as has already been explained multiple times.

And completley incorrect in this situation.

this

>1/3

kek.

If the probability would be 1/3 for head then it would be 1/3 for tails,too.

It follows that the probability for the coin landing on either head or tails is 60%.
But it has to be 100%

You're fucking stupid.

yeah im stupid?
the computer says diffrently.
I wrote a python program that chooses random between 1 and 2 5000x and if it chooses 1 it chooses again and if it chooses again it puts value 1 if it chooses 2 it puts value 2,so basically i made a flip toss in python and the results give 50-50

What seems to be the problem then?

99....% because one already landed on head, so pretty much close to 100% they both land heads

(and yes, 99..... means 99,9999999 etc etc.. For the non-mathguys out there ;) )

i know this could have been done on a much simpler way,dont judge

see

It's a conditional probability problem the answer is 1/3 not 1/2

Real answer using determinate probability:

3/4 or 75%

explain

The problem with your code is that you set it up to confirm your understanding of the problem. Unfortunately, that understanding is incorrect, and therefore, the result is also incorrect.

Just because you say it's incorrect doesn't make it incorrect. You have to demonstrate how.

Protip: You can't because you're either
A) Trolling
or
B) Retarded

Your program only counts the flips where the FIRST flip lands heads.

The FIRST flip could be tails and the second heads. Your program does not account for this and that is why you are wrong.

Rewrite your program and allow for the first flip to also be tails.

Here is a correct simulation where either coin could be tails.

1/3

that doesnt matter. Either you want to specify the problem as "whats the chance of both coins ladnig on the same side if you flip them at once" or it really doesnt matter wether the first or second coin is face up

linux fag

>>automatically wrong on every single point

also some of the worst programming i've ever seen. kys

While behind your back, I flipped two coins. If I tell you one coin landed heads, what is the probability the other one also landed heads?

That makes the scenario much easier to picture.

There are only two coins. It's 50/50 faggot.

math.arizona.edu/~jwatkins/f-condition.pdf

Read the first point and apply.

Winning: "two heads", i.e. HH.

Probability of winning = # outcomes that result in a win and that also has a head in the first toss / # outcomes with head in the first toss

that is,

Probability of winning = #(HH) / #(HH,HT) = 1/2 = .5

This is the concept of conditional probability. You already know a head happened.

What you suckers compute when you say 1/3, is the possibility of the event "AB = HH", which is not the same thing.

test that and see how it goes

I don't care about what program you're using, or the concision of your code, this demonstrates an understanding of the problem and produces the correct answer. Gold star.

if it takes two random values and checks if the second one is 1 and then the first one its the same fucking thing,theres no corelation between them,the coins have already been flipped,it doesnt matter which one of them is up,if one is up the second has 50% chance to be up

once again, "at least one head" and "first toss is head" are completely different.

I might have not explained myself well,but i think you dont understand the basics of code and random numbers

While it's true that the correct answer is 1/2, the event "AB=HH" has a possibility of 1/4.

the probability is that every time both coins show heads, 100% of the time they will both show heads

So? What in the words "head in the first toss" is not clear?

The question is what is the probability BOTH landed heads, given one landed heads.

Coin 1: 100% probability heads
Coin 2: 50% probability heads

150%/2=75%

>So the problem is solved, no?
No. Because there is an equal probability that the coins have landed Heads/Tails.

>What? how can the probability of 2 things occurring be 75%???

Figure that out and win a Nobel prize.
Math has moved on from trying to solve shit like this.