How smart is Sup Forums?
How smart is Sup Forums?
we'll never know because those are euros and terrorist attack just happened
that doesn't look like real american money, is that some sort of commie coin?
Isn't it 50/50 since one of the coins already landed on heads?
25 %
>dollar worth less than euro
kek
No
Also wrong.
1/3
also sage
triggered eurofag in almost every thread.. come on guys
1/3
>>given that at LEAST on of them landed on heads
Why wouldn't it be 50/50?
nice monty hall problem rephrase
Nice mspaint meme bro
The answer is 50/50, 1/2, 50%, whatever floats your boat
If one coin is already decided then you're just flipping one coin you fucking retard
0.001/10 made me reply
sage'd
Also USD is the superior currency and any decisions based on that peasant coin is invalid.
HH
HT
TH
1/3
0 0
>>given that at LEAST on of them landed on heads
>Why wouldn't it be 50/50?
Because there are 4 equally probable outcomes for a 2 coin flip:
HH
HT
TH
TT
3 of those contain at least 1 heads
1 of those 3 is both heads
1 of 3 equally likely outcomes
1/3
It's not the same as the Monty Hall problem, you fucking pleb. It's a basic conditional probability question.
There is a one in four chance that both coins will be heads heads, regardless or the prior outcome. Unless you are saying it's because euros don't have a heads side because they don't have a face on coin money, in which case the question shouldn't have said it just got head head.
Thanks for the lesson.
It cannot be TH as the first coin (letter) landed Heads, or H.
It can only be HH or HT. Though I do understand the confusion.
It is NEVER stated that the first coin landed heads.
1/4 thx
Miss read question thought op asked if he flipped two coins and both landed heads before, what are the chances it will happen again.
> Worrying random people on the internet who don't know who I am will think I'm dumb.
ok its 1/3. i didn't understood the question.
>flips without heads are disregard
2/3
>one coin has been flipped and has come up heads
1/2
Take your pick
Usually 1/4 but because one is already heads its now between 1/2 and 1/4. I would say 1/3 or 2/4
>It cannot be TH as the first coin (letter) landed Heads
>first coin
O rly
Read the question again, lad.
2 incorrect answers. Amazing, good job.
At least one coin must be heads, but it's not stated which. "First coin tails, second heads" and "First coin heads, second tails" are different outcomes. "Both tails" is eliminated, but "Both heads" is till there.
So it's 1 in 3.
It's always awkward when someone who doesn't understand something tries to explain it
One of the coins WILL land Heads, not has already landed Heads.
Round 2
Bowl I contains 6 red chips and 4 blue chips. Five of these 10 chips
are selected at random and without replacement and put in bowl II, which
was originally empty. One chip is then drawn at random from bowl II.
Relative to the hypothesis that this chip is blue, find the conditional
probability that 2 red chips and 3 blue chips are transferred from bowl I to
bowl II.
If one coin lands on heads, the odds of the other coin landing on heads are 50/50
50/50.
No, you're an idiot
You faggots should learn about Bayes' theorem
While you are technically correct, you are misapplying that to the OP question, where you don't know WHICH coin landed heads, meaning either coin could be tails, just not both at the same time.
There are 3 equally probable ways to get at least 1 heads coin for a 2 coin flip
Heads, Heads
or
Heads, Tails
or
Tails, Heads
1/3
bumping this succinct explanation
If one coin lands on heads, the odds of the other coin landing on heads are 50/50
You're stupid if you deny this.
The answer to OPs question is 1/3 however.