Greek's predominant haplogroup is e-v13

>Greek's predominant haplogroup is e-v13
>e-v13's highest peak is found in the Albanian population
Does this mean Albanians are more Greek than Greeks themselves?

Other urls found in this thread:

eupedia.com/europe/Haplogroup_E1b1b_Y-DNA.shtml
nature.com/articles/srep25501
twitter.com/NSFWRedditGif

this is proof that Albanians are more African than European

E-V13 is a subclade of E1b1b that originated in EUROPE.

eastern indo european in central europe

central indo european on east

damn ruskies stole all our clay

wtf is that purple line? my region have this too. am i white?

>I was born in a stable. I originated in a STABLE.
>I must be a horse!

DAS RITE

sometimes

you'll never be white

Albanians are a mix of everything
A Greco-Roman genetical influence, Slavic and even Celtic one
But what unites them is the fact that all of them are unintelligent subhuman Balkan niggers, who are unironically ruled by the Mafia

Terrible analogy.

At least they can only go up from here. You, on the other hand...

Most Greeks are not white.

It's literally called E-V like those in North Africa. Do you mean to tell me that they are not related?

its a subclade of the north african haplogroup that doesn't even exist in modern north africa, it came to europe in neolithic times by crossing to Sicily from Tunisia

What said.

It's also associated with the ancient Greeks. You can find trace evidence of it in Afghanistan because of Alexander's conquests.

Albanians are Illyrians, the people who lived in the Balkans since at least the Roman times

there is no purple in the picture stop trying to guess colors blind turkroach

By itself it's 'proof' of nothing more than itself.

It might reasonably be interpreted to suggest that this lineage is the oldest in the area, which would mean it doesn't represent a proper Greek lineage but a lineage which existed here before Greeks arrived, part of the substrate population.

Albanians and Greeks come from the same stock.

Variance is generally more important that modern distribution when judging subclade origin. Pic related; variance on the right, modern distribution on the left.

As far as I can recall, our oldest actual sample of E-V13 is from Spain, 7,000ish years ago.

eupedia.com/europe/Haplogroup_E1b1b_Y-DNA.shtml

R1b-U106 master race here.

Can you explain this more?

so it came from Tunisia. It's still a sandnigger haplogroup, even if it came to Europe 6 gorillion years ago

by that logic r1b is asian haplogroup

It's not known where it exactly originated.

It's technically Celtic

why is Sup Forums so obsessed with Greek genetics holy fuck

WE

No, it originated way before Celtic culture and identity developed.

Because western culture was heavily influenced by the ancient Greeks so they want to claim them as part of their own race.

to end racism, why not just end all the other races?

related: nature.com/articles/srep25501
tl;dr: a haplogroup being at higher frequency in a place and at lower in another doesn't necessarily imply that the presence in the latter is due to gene flow from the former, even if this might be a more reasonable explanation at first

Sure.

Generally speaking, modern distribution of any given subclade, by itself, is useless for determining its history. As an example, there's tons of R1b in America, but it certainly didn't form here...it's due to population movement from Europe.

When we talk about variance, we're referring to the diversity of (generally) single tandem repeats in (particularly in this case) the Y-line. In a very simplified example, say Daddy A has two sons, Son B and Son C. They both still carry the A mutation, B has the B mutation in addition, and C has the C mutation in addition. Their STRs will be largely the same, with (again, simplified) a single varying STR value (out of, again as an example, sixty-four). Son B could have Son D and Son E, who will continue to have slightly differing STR values, but eventually, their STRs will be both closer to each other and farther apart from C's sons, F and G. Eventually, you'll have a ton of varying modal values, but the closer they are to each other, the more recently they're related.

To give a concrete example, most of western Europe is R1b, but we can tell from subclade diversities (among other things) that P312 and U106 split from each other relatively close together in time, then each split in generally different directions (with some overlap, obviously, because they didn't have DNA tests then and didn't care about them). Their ancestor, L11, has a higher variance in eastern Europe. It's ancestor, L51, is higher around the Black Sea, and it's ancestor, L23, is higher further east, north of the Caucasus and into the Caspian steppe.

Combine that with the usefulness of all Y-DNA lines retaining the previous mutations of their predecessors, and voila. History.

R1b is not Celtic. It's over ten-thousand years older, and is an important haplogroup in many non-Celtic cultures (Germanic, Latinate, Hellenic, Basque, Chadic, Turkic, etc.). It depends on the subclade.

I would accept R1b-L21 as predominantly Celtic.