Why did the ring have such an immediately powerful effect on smeagol and not frodo?

Why did the ring have such an immediately powerful effect on smeagol and not frodo?

Other urls found in this thread:

lotr.wikia.com/wiki/Stoor
twitter.com/NSFWRedditImage

because frodo was good hearted in nature. smeagol was already kind of a greedy little fucker

Cuz thats how JK Rolling wrote the fucking movie faggot

hobbits are naturally resilient to the rings power, because they don't desire power.

Smeagol was a hobbit but the very firsts time he saw the ring, he killed his own brother for it. It never drove frodo mad

he wasn't a hobbit

He was a Stoor, which is a subset of hobbits

lotr.wikia.com/wiki/Stoor

So it's a bad race thing? Like pitbulls and shiet?

Smeagol was always a sneaky character, who liked to study dark places and find secrets. It has more to do with individual characteristics than species.

Take Frodo's relatives, for example - The Sackville Baginnses. They were right greedy cunts, and would probably have grabbed at the ring as soon as they saw it.

>entrusts frodo with ring
>frodo gets tempted and almost gives in throughout the story
>sam gets his hands on it then gives it back like it aint no thing
Sam was the true hero

The only character in the recorded history of Arda who ever managed to give the ring away out of his own free will, too.

Meanwhile, the elves almost got wiped out entirely before man was born, just because of muh silmarills.

>The only character in the recorded history of Arda who ever managed to give the ring away out of his own free will, too.

Boromir picked it up and gave it back to Frodo.
Gandalf put it in an envelope and handed it to Frodo.

Didn't Frodo have it much longer than Sam did though?

Bilbo gave it up of his own free will too. Gandalf just had to help him.

Those instances aren't the same as actually taking possession of the Ring though. Plus I don't think the Boromir thing happened in the books.

Far longer. Frodo kept it for close to 20 years.

smeagol had it for close to 500 years Frodo had it for about 17-18 years

That doesn't answer OP's question.

Elijah is hot. I mean I'm not even gay yet I'd suck his cock

>immediate
Wrong it's even in the movie that it took decades possibly centuries for Smeagol to become Gollum

Schmidtgol killed Deagol to take tne ring. The guy was messed up from the get go.
Frodo was a rosy cheek Hobbit that got along with everyone, and he got it as part of his inheritance.

This is literally explained within the first 50 pages of the book you nignog.

To get the ring he killed Deagol, almost as soon as he saw it.

Yes but as others have said, he was already a sneaky creep even without the Ring.

Because Frodo is a good guy

There's the answer then.

He was already corrupt of heart. Where as Frodo was a nice dude.

Bingo.

Boromir never held the ring.

Gandalf just made Bilbo put it in an envelope.

Bilbo did sort of give it away on his own volition, but he was hard pressed by Gandalf, and tried to sneak away with it numerous times. He didn't have the strength to hand it over to Frodo directly, which was why he held the big party and all.

In context of lore, Smeagol had the ring for a shitton of years. He had it for decades even before the start of The Hobbit. So he was already completely fucked up by it at that point.

Yes but that's not what OP is asking.

Whats he asking then?

He's asking why Smeagol was willing to commit murder so shortly after coming into contact with the Ring as opposed to its slow burn effect on Frodo.

Exactly what was said here Smeagol had been so corrupted by the ring at this point that he would willingly commit murder to get it back. Where Frodo had only had the ring for a few months, a year at max.

Its a silly story about a silly ring, don't think its mindblowingly good just because some retards on reddit and this board proclaim it as such.

You might be retarded

No, no. The original murder of Deagol when he first found the Ring while they were fishing.

Ah, now I see what you mean. Was it possible that the ring may have been more powerful at the time from it being cut off Saurons hand not too long before? Also maybe it was exerting more influence because the ring thought it might get back to Mordor faster had Smeagol took it?

I agree with others though that Smeagol was already a piece of shit before even seeing the ring

Hobbits aren't naturally resilient, Frodo and Bilbo were just good natured.
The Sackville Bagginses would get blown the fuck out by the Ring

>not too long before
>a couple millenia is "not too long before"
lmao, you really are fucking retarded.

>HHHUURRR HES NOT COMPLETE TOLKIEN MASTER LIKE ME *snorts*
>HE MUST BE RETARDED *wipes Cheeto dust on cum covered sock*
>YEA THATS RIGHT. I FOKKEN SHOWED HIM

...and it's time to watch LOTR again for the nth time.

Do you guys think it's worth reading? I'm not much of a reader.

But that's the reason the ring had such an immediate effect on Smeagol. The longer you possess the ring the morevit corrupts you. It can't be more crystal clear in the movies that this is the case.

Yes but he was easily corruptible to begin with which is why he murdered Deagol only minutes after coming into contact with the Ring.

Try The Hobbit first. You'll probably have a tough time getting into Tolkien's writing style.

>Smeagol killed Deagol because Smeagol had had the Ring for so long
Just fucking stop posting.

Most of that time it was just sitting in bag end, right? How long was the actual journey with the ring to mordor?

I think it was around a year from the time they left to the time they came back and booted Saruman's thugs out.

>lore
>plot
>lore
>lore
>song
>plot
>lore in the form of a song
>plot
>song
>lore
>song

>it's another "Aragorn bursts into song about the elves and Sam starts crying" episode

was it autism?

t. someone who's never read the silmarillion

Are you a troll or an underage moviefag?